Let me get this straight…

Help me work this out:

  1. HIV+ man passes on ‘infection’ to 2 of 4 female partners; he had unprotected sex with all of them and neither of the infected were assumed to be HIV+ prior to meeting him.
  2. After 1yr, HIV+ man who had a child with one of his victims begins to show signs of an STD. Following hospital tests it’s revealed that the mother of his child did not know he was infected, and so when the mother was tested, she tested HIV+ too.
  3. Their baby is not HIV+

‘Having unprotected sex with someone who is HIV positive is a bit like Russian Roulette. You might be lucky and might not get it – or you might.’

We were told in the 1980s that HIV was highly infectious, so, what gives? 50% infection and no maternal transmission here. What STD the man had/has is unknown from this article. What manifestation of AIDS or ‘HIV disease’ either of the women had or could have if not treated is not clear too.

[Source: Daily Mail]


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